Quote:
Originally Posted by
Mission146
Quote:
Originally Posted by
redietz
Mission, have you actually read all or most of MDawg's trip reports?
That's going to be a no. I read a few here and there, and he knows his music and seems like a nice-enough guy...but I'd rather be the guy in charge of cleaning the toilets at Denny's on, "Seniors Eat Free Day," than read all of them.
Well, then, here's the logical problem with your argument regarding MDawg.
1) You're assigning a 1-in-200 eventuality to "MDawg using a 90% martingale -ish system."
2) You haven't assigned a probability to MDawg actually using a formal or semi-formal martingale system that would yield 90% session win rate.
3) Without doing (2) above, and without you having some special insight regarding MDawg or having witnessed his play, you have no idea what (2) above is.
4) The proper math here, then, is assigning a probability to (2) and then multiplying that by (1).
5) There's no indication that MDawg uses a 90% martingale-ish system based on his trip reports.
6) There's no indication that MDawg has the required bankroll necessary to execute a 90% martingale-ish system based on his bet sizes according to his trip reports.
7) Therefore, to consider the 1-in-200 number, an additional probability must be entered, namely "How likely is it MDawg has a 500K available bankroll?"
Now I know people with 500K bankrolls for table games, and a 500K bankroll for sports betting is not all that rare. So maybe MDawg has a 500K bankroll, but it has not really come into play in his trip reports.
In conclusion, the proper probability is the probability of (2) multiplied by the probability of (1) multiplied by the probability of (7).
Thus, the 1-in-200 number has no real bearing on the real world scenario of MDawg's wagering. And I think you know that.