Originally Posted by
Dankyone
When Johnson and the Trop finally agreed, he had whittled the house edge down to one-fourth of 1 percent, by his figuring. In effect, he was playing a 50-50 game against the house, and with the discount, he was risking only 80 cents of every dollar he played. He had to pony up $1 million of his own money to start, but, as he would say later: “You’d never lose the million. If you got to [$500,000 in losses], you would stop and take your 20 percent discount. You’d owe them only $400,000.”
That doesn't say that he lost and used the rebate, that's what he said
would happen
if you lost, but that's not what
did happen.
If it happened to him, then why didn't he use the first person?
He says if "you" lost, not when "I" lost.
He played one night and won $6 mil in one night...when did he lose and take the rebate?