Originally Posted by PharoahsWin View Post
Okay, then I'm gone. May I suggest asking the math guys... When at least one 2 is rolled, what are the odds the "other" die also rolled a 2?

I bet they give your argument in reverse. I bet they'll say that the odds the "other" die rolls a 2 is 1 in 11, because if the "other" die rolled a 2, that would be a 2-2, which had a 1 in 11 chance of happening. So, they'd say, the "other" die had a 1 in 11 chance of being 2. They would be wrong, and you would be right saying 1 in 6.
I'm one of said Maths guys. I'm an English graduate, in England. English is my first language. I'm familiar with some American English.
I'd go with 1/6 to that latter question.
Thanks.
Thanks for trying to persuade Alan, but give it a rest now, as I have money at stake )