As long as one of the dice is a 2 the 1/6 answer applies. It doesn't matter which or even if both show 2. And that is the same thing you OnceDear said you would unconditionally agree to. Saying that at least one die shows a 2 and setting aside one die as a two means the same thing in the language I speak.
No it doesn't. it would only 'settle it' if IN FACT "that in effect was the information in the original question."Originally Posted by Alan Mendelson
I and many many others assert quite strongly that
It is not true "that in effect was the information in the original question."
I've all along refused to argue the toss about anything other than the original question.
[*] I added that bit because Alan effectively paraphrased me and modified the meaning of what I said, so I modify the meaning back to mean what I said.Originally Posted by Alan Mendelson
And that sir, is the absolute boiled down crux of where you are wrong.
Does not mean the same as
Last edited by OnceDear; 04-19-2015 at 06:45 PM.
I should have known better than to get involved with this, as it's clear that everyone here has decided that they are right, and that no amount of evidence to the contrary will change their position.
So, I will leave with this, and then go back to merely lurking on the forum.
The question that Alan is answering has a solution of 1/6.
The question that I am answering has a solution of 1/11.
The question as posed in post #1 is the question that I am answering.
The question as posed in post #3 is the question that Alan is answering.
I don't know any other way to express this, other than the attempts that I have previously made on this thread.
Very simply. There are only two dice. And as I said and others have said when only two dice are involved the statement "at least one of" is the same as "this die" and the answer 1/6 applies.Originally Posted by 1in11
If you don't "get it" now you never will.
Then what is the probability of rolling ace-deuce, if at least one of the dice is a 2?
So, It might seem for the moment, that If Alan doesn't "get it now", he never will. Such is life.Originally Posted by Alan Mendelson
I assert that Alan doesn't get it now.
1/6. Do you really need an explanation?Originally Posted by 1in11
So, by your logic, rolling 2-2 and 1-2 have the same probability?Originally Posted by Alan Mendelson
When one die shows a 2 then 2-2 and 2-1 have the same chance of showing which is 1/6. You don't understand that?Originally Posted by 1in11
And before you jump all over me rolling 2-2 and 2-1 do not.
Are you able to understand the difference?
The problem with this entire "debate" is that you keep asking different questions and changing questions.
Are you able to understand the difference between 2-1 and 1-2?
Of course. And the distinction is of no consequence to the original problem. This is just another question, problem or condition. You are grasping at straws trying to avoid the correct answer to the specific question. Yes you are twisting words and twisting in the wind.Originally Posted by 1in11
2-1 and 1-2 both satisfy the condition that one of the dice is a 2. Why then are you only considering 2-1 and not 1-2?
No more. This is a waste of time.Originally Posted by 1in11
Altering questions and changing ground rules mid-stream is a well known trait on the wizard's forum when the know-it-all's get trapped by their own neurotic need to be perceived as right, or, as with this issue also, not to be humiliated.
As we've seen, they ran straight back to the safety of WoV where they began their sour grapes badmouthing & namecalling in an attempt to rally even more of the "anonymous brave".
I agree. I'm sorry I couldn't be of any help.Originally Posted by Alan Mendelson
The Wizard has announced on his forum that he will happily bank these bets about two dice with at least one die showing a 2.
Total 3: Lose 1
Total 4: Pay 8
Total 5: Lose 1
Total 6: Lose 1
Total 7: Lose 1
Total 8: Lose 1
All other bets are a push. A member of the Wizard's forum who also says the answer to the question is 1/6 believes the banker of these bets will lose.
I admit I can't figure out pays/odds so I would like to offer the question here.
Does the Wizard clean up or lose?
Oh Hum.... There's a spreadsheet for that.http://oncedear.com/AlansFolly.xlsxOriginally Posted by Alan Mendelson
Glad to be of service. Goodbye.
Last edited by OnceDear; 04-20-2015 at 12:30 AM.
Just to make sure, you mean you'll roll a pair of dice. Any roll that doesn't yield a two will be a push, no action. Of the rolls that yield a two, the payout will be according to the above table. Is that accurate?
Did you see that spreadsheet? Can you imagine anyone in their right mind spending all that time putting something like that together that helps evade the original question while displaying all that irrelevant theory? Evenbob would be having a field day with it! Redietz has already explained the madness as to why WoV folks do such stuff.
The weather must have been lousy in the UK again today.
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