You will have to explain to me why, in a problem involving only two dice, it matters which of the two dice shows the 2.
If, for example, die A is showing a 2 then isn't it a 1/6 chance for die B?
And if die B is showing a 2 isn't it a 1/6 chance for die A?
And if we don't know if its die A or die B that is showing a 2 but one of them is showing a 2, then isn't it always 1/6 for the other die whichever it is?
And just in case both die A and die B are showing 2s then it was still a 1/6 chance that either A or B had a 2 showing, right?