Originally Posted by regnis View Post

So again, take the peeking out of the original question. Just make it what are the odds that at least one die will show a 2. Voila--1/11. The question is in no way confusing--it is clear--1/11.
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I rest my case.
I think you missed something here - the odds of at least one two showing up is NOT 1/11, it's 11/36. How do you figure the odds of getting a two by rolling two dice as LOWER than the odds of rolling a two with one die? I agree, this should not be confusing in any way. I might expect you to (incorrectly) estimate the odds of rolling at least one two with two dice to be 1/3, but can't fathom how you think you're less likely to get at least one two when you're rolling more dice.