Originally Posted by Alan Mendelson View Post
Look guys, would you all agree that if I threw two dice down a table and one die came to rest on a two and the second die was a spinner, that the odds of the spinner settling on a 2 were 1/6?

Do we all agree on that?

Well, that's the closest analogy to the original wording of the question. If you do not believe the "spinner analogy" is the closest to the original question, what is your analogy?
I have a question for you, Alan. If your partner is looking at a resting die with a "2" and the other one is a spinner, does he show you this or tell you this fact? Again, this situation would be exactly the same as if your partner telling you s/he only needed to look at one die to tell you "At least one of the dice is a 2". Yes, at that point the odds truly become 1/6.

It's not a good analogy for the original problem, though.