Originally Posted by regnis View Post
The answer is 0, because the effin dice don't flip and the other die is a 1. The point being that once one die is a 2, that can't change. You have the necessary information to determine that the odds of the other die showing a 2 would be 1/6, except in my example.
They'll never understand because somewhere along the line someone told them that whenever you have a dice problem you have to look at all of the combinations on the dice. Never were they told to use common sense or to consider the conditions of the problem and in this case the condition of the problem is that there are two dice in a cup and only two dice and the dice don't move after they are slammed down on the table.

You do not consider the various combinations of dice that include a two. You consider only the problem in front of you and that the observer TRUTHFULLY told you that AT LEAST one of the dice is showing a two.

How friggin hard is it? I guess for people who can't interpret the question it is very hard.