Originally Posted by regnis View Post
I have a legitimate question. The guy that peeked under the cup and said one of them is a 2. Would you say that for him the odds that the other one is a 2 would be 1 of 6. And if so, then are you telling me that his odds are different than the other guy's odds?
The guy that peeked under the cup knows which one is a 2. He may also know what the other die is which gets us back to my example. But assuming he only saw the one die that showed a 2, what are the odds for him that the other is a 2?
Sorry, the peeker cannot ALWAYS answer the question "at least one die is a 2" unless he sees both die. Hence, once he sees both die then he knows the exact answer already. The odds aren't 1:6 either.