Originally Posted by Alan Mendelson View Post
Originally Posted by RS__ View Post
Somehow I didn't realize this was a new thread, figured it was an old thread because it jumped me to page 5 or whatever...so I thought this was an old thread. I'm surprised no one caught this, though:
Originally Posted by Alan Mendelson View Post
This discussion is similar to the one about odds in craps. Sure your passline odds in craps have zero house advantage but they only have about a 64% chance of winning.
Where do you come up with this nonsense?
That is not nonsense. The chance of a passline bet winning is 64%. And that includes the odds portion of the bet.

You were a craps dealer, right? You know that the chance of winning is different from the house edge, right? The house edge on the "odds portion" is zero, but the house still has a greater chance of winning each and every time.
Everywhere you look on the internet it says the house has a 1.4% advantage on an even money passline bet. That means the player is at 98.6%. For every $100 the player puts in action the house is also putting $100 into action. That's a combined wager of $200.

98.6/200 = 49.3%

So the player's chance of winning each individual passline bet is 49.3%