The analysis is accurate and takes this into account - The 1st term of the equation is the expected value (weighted average) of all the non-losing outcomes as shown in the attached screenshot and has a value of $53.65. The only other term in the expected value equation is the value for the losing outcome which is -$54.49 (no loss rebate value).
Which is to say $53.65=ExpectedValue_of_nonlosinghands=p(NRF)*NRF_ win_for_$100bet + p(strflush)*strFlush_win_for_$100bet + p(4Aces)*4Aces_win_for_$100bet + p(four23or4s)*four23or4s_win_for_$100bet + p(four5thruKings)*four5thrukings_win_for_$100bet + p(fullhouse)*fullhouse_win_for_$100bet + p(flush)*flush_win_for_$100bet + p(straight)*straight_win_for_$100bet + p(threeofakind)*threeofakind_win_for_$100bet + p(twopair)*twopair_win_for_$100bet + p(jacksorbetter)*jacksorbetter_win_for_$100bet . If you still don't believe me, you can plug in the spreadsheet values shown in the screen shot or derive the values and equation yourself to see that I am factoring in all of the possible outcomes in the paytable when coming up with the loss rebate value. I figured it would be easier just to give the end result of the non-losing hands since they are unaffected by the loss rebate. Anyhow I think you also asked me if I had ever played video poker before and the answer is yes.
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