Originally Posted by Dankyone View Post
Hi tableplay.

Believe me, I’m on your side, but this analysis is overly simplistic and does not account for the fact that VP is not a win/lose game. Not every winning hand pays the same. Do you ever play video poker?

Alan doesn’t understand your math anyway, but please try again.
The analysis is accurate and takes this into account - The 1st term of the equation is the expected value (weighted average) of all the non-losing outcomes as shown in the attached screenshot and has a value of $53.65. The only other term in the expected value equation is the value for the losing outcome which is -$54.49 (no loss rebate value).
Which is to say $53.65=ExpectedValue_of_nonlosinghands=p(NRF)*NRF_ win_for_$100bet + p(strflush)*strFlush_win_for_$100bet + p(4Aces)*4Aces_win_for_$100bet + p(four23or4s)*four23or4s_win_for_$100bet + p(four5thruKings)*four5thrukings_win_for_$100bet + p(fullhouse)*fullhouse_win_for_$100bet + p(flush)*flush_win_for_$100bet + p(straight)*straight_win_for_$100bet + p(threeofakind)*threeofakind_win_for_$100bet + p(twopair)*twopair_win_for_$100bet + p(jacksorbetter)*jacksorbetter_win_for_$100bet . If you still don't believe me, you can plug in the spreadsheet values shown in the screen shot or derive the values and equation yourself to see that I am factoring in all of the possible outcomes in the paytable when coming up with the loss rebate value. I figured it would be easier just to give the end result of the non-losing hands since they are unaffected by the loss rebate. Anyhow I think you also asked me if I had ever played video poker before and the answer is yes.
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