Originally Posted by
regnis
RS-I should have been clearer. I sent my wife to different casinos than I had bet at for the first run and she was limited to 2K at TI and Paris. I was able to bet more than her at other casinos and then at paris and TI on the second run. Is there a gender bias? Do big players use female shills to get more bets in?
While I felt the under was a play because of the info, I no longer bet sports (with rare exceptions) so my only interest was in what I perceived to be a possible middle. I apparently over estimated how much the total would move. I did leave a modest amount more on the under to cover the juice and a little profit.
As a former sports bettor, it is not a good idea for me to delude myself that I know anything and start betting again when I no longer have the info or contacts. I don't like to do anything for which I am ill prepared.