Originally Posted by AxelWolf View Post
let's assume he gets in 2 million worth of bets for the year on behalf of his clients and let's assume he gets 10% of that. That means he would be only making 20k for the year.
Isn't 10% of 2 Million, 200,000 (rather than 20,000 which is 1% of 2 million) ? Perhaps you meant 1% rather than 10%. Or perhaps I just misread/misinterpreted your post.

Would one possible reason to refuse client betting be to avoid undesired line movement for personal bets ? Perhaps knowledgeable sports bettors can chime in on this supposition.