The mundane meaning behind the original question, once it is identified that "at least one of the dice is a 2", does indeed ask what the odds are of the other die being a 2. Similarly, there is nothing in the question that suggests this is nothing more than a one-throw event. However, I would not fault anybody who wants to believe the 1in11 interpretation, simply because it can be understood in that manner. So why can't the 1in11ers accept that 1in6 is also just as viable--or even more so--an answer as well as an interpretation? Does the pride take THAT much of a hit?