Originally Posted by tableplay View Post
Originally Posted by accountinquestion View Post
Originally Posted by tableplay View Post
So non-industrial processes (pre-industrial processes) have the capability of heating the earth to much warmer temperatures than at present. This has happened many times over the history of the earth - but somehow non-industrial processes can be totally ruled out as being responsible for current heating processes or considered as a non-significant factor for current heating processes. Makes a lot of sense.
I once tried to quantify the odds that scientists would have claimed this and it wound up being true over the course of 50 or so years... but whatever. You guys think like women. All emotions. You know what you want to believe and that's that.

How long do you think it took to accumulate the fossil fuels we've burned? How do you think that timeframe compares to the modern Era?
When did the earth lose its ability to heat the earth without industrial processes ? Was it yesterday afternoon ?
I sure didn't mean to suggest the Earth lost its ability to heat itself. Not sure where I did?

The warming is in addition to that. I have never heard one person claim that the preexisting natural processes stopped and man-made global warming made up for that and THEN SOME. Really - I have never seen anyone claim that. Are you saying people do claim that?

Fossil fuels were created over a process of millions of years. Mankind has taken a large portion of that over the past 100 years and dumped it into the atmosphere via burning. It should not be shocking that scientists believe this also is causing the rapid increase in temperature.

This prediction has existed for many years now.

If this temperature increase is not caused by man made processes then the scientists were exceptionally lucky in their outcome prediction even if you doubt the underlying reasons. It really is exceptional luck on their part.