So you cannot calculate the probability of finishing ahead unless you know the amount bet on each hand. Is that correct?
I understand that your calculations are for flat-betting 12 separate sessions of 800 hands each. Is the probability the same for 9600 hands total?
Through 800 hands, the expected number of hands won & lost will be the same regardless of how much is bet. Is that correct?
Considering a min bet of X = the amount bet on all losing hands, what should the average bet be on winning hands, such that the player can finish ahead after 800 hands?